Talk:Round Robin Conlang

Question: There is now a root-final <j> appearing. Is this intended to be an obstruent of some kind? Or if it's just /j/, is it intended to contrast with <i> as appears in boib, tsai etc? --Trɔpʏliʊm • blah 12:45, 10 November 2009 (UTC)

Question : There is a morphological function where a homo-organic nasal is inserted before the caudal consonant, but we have a problem, because what happens with the root [tsʼun], what does it become? Does it become simply [ts’un], or [ts’ũn], or [ts’unː], or [ts’uːn], or [ts’ũːn]? ave mathyiw at maye

I think it's in the spirit of the game to just decide oneself on answers to these questions if they worry one. So, with only that authority, here's what I might do:

• <j> is /j/ behaving morphophonologically as a final C; <i> after a V can also be [j] but then it's morphophonologically part of the root vowel.
• It seems the least exceptional thing is for /tsʼun/ to go to /tsʼunn/, but that might be realised like one of the other things you suggested.

AlexFink 18:04, 12 November 2009 (UTC)

Plus, if <j> were some kind of stop I'd expect it to go to its corresponding fricative under spirant lenition, but it stays <j>. AlexFink 18:14, 12 November 2009 (UTC)

I was thinking something from the [ʒ] ballpark, but a morphophonemical distinction doesn't sound too bad either. For prenasalization of nasals, "gemination" and "nothing" seem the most likely changes — but who's to say it doesn't become /ndr/ or /ln/ or /ŋn/ or something? No-one before we actually use it. --Trɔpʏliʊm • blah 21:06, 12 November 2009 (UTC)

For the record, here's what Pete Bleackley said onlist:

OK, I'm responsible for the nasal infixation rule, so I'll answer this. My intention is that when a nasal is infixed before another nasal, you get a gemminate nasal.

[...]

I intended ñ to have its Spanish value, ie CXS [J], in line with <j> = [j]

AlexFink 22:43, 13 November 2009 (UTC)